On Direct Retros, if the federal fund is greater than 120 days and we're not changing the fund, rather only the CF1 field, for example, will it be considered high risk?

Definition of high risk Direct Retro:
Violates the 120 Day Rule: Increases the expense on a Federal or Federal Flow-through fund where the transaction is on a payroll transaction for which the original Pay End is prior to [SysDate – 120]

OR

Violates the 90 Day Rule: Increases the expense on a Federal or Federal Flow-through fund where the Fund/Grant End Date is prior to [SysDate – 90].